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Authored by: Anonymous on Friday, November 16 2012 @ 02:17 PM EST |
Thanks for clearing that up. :)
Do the two words in Spanish equate, more or less, to the difference between the
verb forms of prejudice and prejudge in English? Just a guess there - I don't
have a reasonable understanding of Spanish, obviously, although I'm passable in
French and once was so in Latin (and I am fluent in English, of course).
It does seem to be a quirk of Spanish that the per- prefix replaced pre- in
perjuicio, since per- and pre- have very different meanings in Latin (one means
"away from" and the other "before").
It is not all that surprising that English and French have the same set of
meanings for prejudice since the word came into English by way of Old French
from Medieval Latin from Latin. I would expect that Spanish would have it's own
derivation directly from Medieval Latin (which was quite a mess in terms of
spelling and word formation compared to Latin, so maybe that explains the
quirk).
In any case, thanks for bringing it up. I find these kinds of discussions quite
fascinating, and I always manage to learn something from them.[ Reply to This | Parent | # ]
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Authored by: marcosdumay on Friday, November 16 2012 @ 03:26 PM EST |
We have "prejuiso" that comes from the same root of prejudice, but
only means losing property, and "preconceito" that comes from a
competely diffrent root (the same as concept in english) and means a predefined
judgment.
But, well, it is not surprizing that Spanish and Portuguese share a feature that
you won't find on other lating languages.[ Reply to This | Parent | # ]
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