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Authored by: Anonymous on Sunday, November 04 2012 @ 02:07 PM EST |
Sorry to pick a nit, but your reference to "country of manufacture"
is not clear to me. Do you mean
the country where Qualcomm manufactures its chips?
the country where Apple manufactures its phones?
These could be different, and as you admit it may be according
to the laws of each that neither company needs a licence from
Motorola for those activities in those places.
Since Apple appear not to be emphasising the exhaustion principle,
(and I haven't thoroughly searched the record, personal exhaustion :(
can we assume either they or Qualcomm do not have a license
for some activity in some place where it has ocurred?
In any case as you rightly point out this is about importing, selling
and using the devices in the US, thus infringing Motorola's US patent.
But if "no chip can ever enact all the patent claims" why is
this case in court?
[ Reply to This | Parent | # ]
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- Yes - Authored by: Ian Al on Monday, November 05 2012 @ 03:12 AM EST
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